Hermeneutics

Undermining of Faith

Undermining of FaithDuring an era in history called, The Enlightenment, it was fashionable to use what has been termed as higher criticism to introduce questions & doubts about biblical inerrancy, biblical historicity, & general presuppositional belief – that ultimately would lead to the undermining of faith.

 

One way that higher criticism has been defined is:

 



Higher criticism treats the Bible as a text created by human beings at a particular historical time and for various human motives, in contrast with the treatment of the Bible as the inerrant word of God. Lower criticism is used for attempts to interpret Biblical texts based only on the internal evidence from the texts themselves. (source)

 

Another offshoot of the higher criticism approach is often misunderstood as “exegesis”.  The word exegesis literally means to “bring out of” in that a person who is approaching the Bible in an “exegetical” manner is supposed to be bringing the meaning of the text out rather than reading their opinion back into the text. 

Tinker Toy Theology: How Much Can People Tinker With The Historic Christian Faith before it is No Longer Really Christianity?

Tinker Toy TheologyRecently a leader from a quasi-conservative faction of a cultic group made the statement that he doesn’t reject all of historic Christianity but that he only wants to be able to “tinker” with the parts with which he doesn’t agree.

 

The problems with this sentiment are:

 

#1 How is it decided who can “tinker”?

#2 How is it decided how much “tinkering” can be done?

 

I mean, there are certainly people who have & still would like to “tinker” with such staple doctrines as: the deity of Christ, the sinlessness of Christ, the virgin birth of Christ, the Trinity & others. On what basis will these first “tinkerers” deny other “tinkerers” from tinkering with anything?

Exegetes or Con Men?

If you have spent anytime observing a heated theological discussion, you no doubt have heard certain words thrown around by the participants; exegetical, hermeneutics, eisegesis among many others.  Although these words have specific meanings, they are often used to bludgeon the opponent.  For instance, the word exegetical comes from the word exegete, which literally means, “guide out of” – or specifically the prefix “ex” means “out of” or “from”.  The implication is that when a person “exegetes” a passage of the Bible, that they are trying to get the interpretation “out of” or “from” the passage itself rather than reading into the passage.

 

In contrast, the word eisegesis means to “guide into” much like a lawyer may guide a witness or jury into a certain perspective – hence the term “leading the witness”.  So, that when a person is accused of not exegeting a passage but instead merely using eisegesis – this is meant that the person is reading their own interpretation into the Bible rather than getting the meaning out of/from the Bible.

 

But just because a person claims to be exegeting a passage doesn’t mean they are actually getting the true interpretation out of/from the Bible.  Oh sure, they may be pulling something out of/from the passage but it may be no different than a magician pulling a rabbit from a hat or a con man pulling a fast one on people.

Hippocratic Hermeneutics: Premises before Conclusions

Hippocratic HermeneuticsOften when a theological discussion takes place, the conversationalists will focus on the conclusions before focusing on the premise.  For example, in a discussion about eschatology (end times) one person may say, “There is still evil in the world, therefore Jesus has not come” whereas another person may say, “Jesus has come therefore there must not really be evil in the world”.  Both approaches are operating from conclusions not from premises.

 

Discussions that operate from conclusions are much like the proverbial cart before the horse & often only end in frustration if not outright hostility.

 

Another conclusion I have seen in eschatological discussions is that the “Old Covenant is gone therefore we are in the New Covenant”.  A conclusion such as this can have some truth to it but without first looking at the premise a person can often be misled to all sorts of faulty sub-conclusions.

Who Says What the Bible Says?

Who Says What the Bible Says?Inevitably when two or more Christians come to different interpretations of the Bible, several methods are put forth to resolve the disagreement.

 

These methods are called “hermeneutics” or interpretive models.  Sometimes these models are very detailed & sometimes they are very vague & inconsistent.  What we’d like to do here is to examine some of the various interpretation methods.

 

Within the hermeneutical models are specifics such as interpreting a text “literally” (which even those people who espouse this method never actually interpret every text literally).  Another specific approach is to interpret figuratively or metaphorically.  Another approach is to consider context, grammar of the original language, and historical background of the topic, audience including cultural considerations.  But even these important aspects don’t resolve interpretative disputes since it is still a matter of when & how to apply these aspects to the text.

On Haggai 2:6-9

On Haggai 2:6-9A friend of mine has been taking classes at a local Christian college.  The instructor made the statement that Haggai 2:6-9 speaks of the “end times” when God will “shake the heaven & earth” & “all nations”.  Further, citing the Matthew Henry Commentary as if his view settles the issue.

 

Let’s quote Haggai 2:6-9

 



“For thus says the LORD of hosts: ‘Once more (it is a little while) I will shake heaven and earth, the sea and dry land; and I will shake all nations, and they shall come to the Desire of All Nations, and I will fill this temple with glory,’ says the LORD of hosts. ‘The silver is Mine, and the gold is Mine,’ says the LORD of hosts. ‘The glory of this latter temple shall be greater than the former,’ says the LORD of hosts. ‘And in this place I will give peace,’ says the LORD of hosts.” (multiple translations)

 

 

But what seems to be overlooked in thinking these Haggai verses are speaking of the end times or as a prophetic reference to Christ is that Haggai was specifically speaking about the  Second Temple in Jerusalem, the former Temple (Solomon’s Temple) having been destroyed by the Babylonians. (see here)  Add to that these points:

When Logic Fails: An introduction to an Epistemological Mind

When Logic Fails: An Introduction to an Epistemological MindAs a Christian who believes the Bible teaches the Sovereign God who does not merely “allow” things to happen but decrees things for His “good pleasure” & sometimes immutable will – I have been trying to discern the purpose of my latest situation in that light.

 

I don’t want this to sound “me-focused”, as none of my articles are about “me” per se but rather as I have expressed before I try to write for posterity. So, the account may be your account.

 

I recently have been employed at a job which I passionately dislike because I am doing things that I don't enjoy, & things that are “illogical”.  Don’t get me wrong, I'm not unhappy especially since as I said I believe the Bible teaches everything happens for a reason; from my mundane job-account to the most horrid or most wonderful accounts.

Don't Touch Me: When Did Jesus go into the True Holy of Holies?

high priest imageAs people know, I am constantly advocating that God's methodology is primarily typological -- first the natural then the spiritual -- thus when futurists look at Genesis & try to apply that physicality to the Eschaton, they destroy typology whereas some preterists then error in the other direction by looking at the spirituality of the Eschaton & trying to suppose to be "consistent" we must also interpret the Beginning as spiritual -- Both approaches destroy God's typological methodology.

 
I say all of that as a preface to answering the question of WHEN DID JESUS FULFILL THE ROLE OF HIGH PRIEST ENTERING INTO THE HOLY OF HOLIES & COMING OUT AGAIN TO DECLARE THE ATONEMENT COMPLETE?  
 
The TYPE, the natural High Priests as you know made the sacrifice outside the temple & then on the day of atonement carried the blood into the Holy of Holies where no man could be with him & offered it before God.  If it was accepted, the High Priest would come out to the eagerly waiting people & declare the atonement complete for another year.  Year after year this was done.  (see Lev 16:17)
 
The ANTITYPE, or the fulfillment is as you said, Heb 9:28 & Christ the final & eternal High Priest going only once into the TRUE Holy of Holies & offering up His blood before God -- having been "sacrificed" on the Cross outside the TRUE temple.
So now the apparent dilemma is that according to how John 20:17 is translated it appears that Christ went to heaven BEFORE His ascension in Acts 1:9 .  Let's look at several translations of John 20:17:

The Rapture of Jesus?

Everytime I see or hear a person trying to build the case for a rapture based on the the word "harpazo" I think of Revelation 12:5 wherein we see this word in relation to Jesus.

And she brought forth a man child, who was to rule all nations with a rod of iron: and her child was caught up unto God, and [to] his throne. -- KJV

Are we to believe Jesus was raptured?  Perhaps they will reference, Acts 1:2 to support that indeed Jesus was "raptured" in a sense:

Until the day in which he was taken up, after that he through the Holy Ghost had given commandments unto the apostles whom he had chosen: -- KJV

Why then the DIFFERENT Greek words here?  In Rev 12:5 & 1 Thes 4:17 "harpazo" compared to in Acts 1:2 "analambano".

The Pharisee Charge & False Doctrines

You have no doubt heard it presented this way before, whenever someone questions the beliefs of another they are considered “judgmental” & like the Pharisees on the road who passed by the dying man in the ditch.  We are told “no one would first ask the dying man what he believes but would simply help him…except for the self-righteous pharisaical-type people”. In this way we are led to believe that we can’t really determine if the belief someone holds & advocates is false or not, because how dare we even ask?  No one asked the dying man about his beliefs, not even those who passed him by, that isn't the issue. (see this reference)

The problem is, the entire premise that people use to equate questioning beliefs to questioning the dying man is incorrect.  If anything the dying man isn’t advocating ANY belief.  The belief or theological identity of the “dying man” is never revealed to us & thus he better relates as an unbeliever, whereas the theological identities of those passing him by were clearly presented. 

If anything, those teaching & holding to false doctrines are better compared to either the robbers that beat the man up (by teaching him deadly doctrines) or they are comparable to those who passed him by & not giving the dying man LIFE.

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